Comparing Medicines

The following appeared in an article in a consumer-products magazine:

"Two of today’s best-selling brands of full-strength prescription medication for the relief of excess stomach acid, Acid-Ease and Pepticaid, are now available in milder nonprescription forms. Doctors have written 76 million more prescriptions for full-strength Acid-Ease than for full-strength Pepticaid. So people who need an effective but milder nonprescription medication for the relief of excess stomach acid should choose Acid-Ease."

Discuss how well reasoned . . . etc.

The argument cites the fact that Acid-Ease was prescribed by a higher number of doctors to the convince the reader about Acid-Ease being effective but milder. I think that it is neither a clear nor a well-connected reasoning.

The reasoning does not clarify the condition of the people who took the prescriptions. Depending on that one can deduce which of the two prescriptions is actually milder. Since both are best-selling brands, there must be some value proposition in both of them. If more people with acute condition were prescribed Acid-Ease, it would mean that Acute-Acid is strong and Pepticaid is milder. The vice-versa is also true. This scenario would mean two different drugs for two different purposes.

However if the medicines have been prescribed for similar patient conditions, Acid-Ease has a definite edge. Such a data would point at the popularity of Acid-Ease with doctors and clearly demonstrates their faith in its effectiveness against the ailment. Still by no stretch of imagination it can be called mild in such a scenario and will be seen as strong and effective. So the writer's contention that it is mild is counter-intuitive.  

Concluding, at best one can agree that Acid-Ease is more effective but it is not possible to say for sure if it is mild or not. Hence the reasoning above is not convincing as it leaves a lot to imagination and seems to convey conflicting conclusions.